EMS TEST & INFORMATION


1.The EMS physician’s oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS Systems is referred to as what? 

2.Orders given to the EMT-B by telephone or radio are called what?  

3.Attending conferences, watching EMS videos, or listening to lectures for the purpose of supplementing, or adding to, knowledge received in an original course is known as what? 

4.A reaction to death or dying where the patient says “Not me” is referred to as what? 

5.What does CISD stand for? Plus 1, what does it mean?

6.Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and bacteria, are called what? 

7.Disposable gloves, eye shields, masks and gowns are known as what? 

8.The EMT-B’s ethical responsibilities and legal duties are called what? 

9. What is expressed consent? 

10.What’s the medical term for a Severe Allergic Reaction?

11.Consent based on the theory that the unconscious patient would approve of life-saving treatment is called what?

12.Unlawful touching of another person without consent is what?

13.Stopping the treatment with assuring the continuation of treatment at the same or higher level is referred to as what?

14.A series of laws, varying in each state, designed to provide limited legal protection for citizens and some health-care personnel is called what?

15.The change from a liquid to a gas is called what?

16.What does DNR stand for?  Plus 1, what does it mean?

17.Show me that correct anatomical position.

18.Show me your humerus.

19.Show me your tibia.

20.Show me your femur.

21.Show me your clavicle.

22.Show me your mandible.

23.Show me your patella.

24.Show me your mid-axillary line.  Mid-armpit to the ankle

25.Patient lying on it’s back is said to be in what position?

26.Patient lying on it’s front is said to be in what position?

27.How many quadrants are there in the abdomen?

28.The type of muscle tissue that controls the flow of materials through the GI System is what?

29.A leaf-shaped valve that prevents food from entering the trachea is what?

30.The structure containing the voice box is what?

31.Your windpipe is call what?

32.As the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the chest cavity decreases in size, causing what?

33.The major artery that carries blood away from the heart is called what?

34.The major artery that carries blood in the thigh is called what?

35.The right atrium does what?

36.Name the 2 main veins that bring blood into the heart. 

37.The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is what?

38.The clotting agent in blood are called what?

39.A symptom is what?

40.What carries the oxygen to the muscles and the carbon dioxide away to the lungs? 

41.The pressure on the walls when the left ventricle contracts is called what?

42.The nervous system is subdivided into what??  Central and peripheral nervous system

43.An emergency move for the patient found in the sitting position in an automobile is called what?

44.A position of comfort for a patient with difficulty breathing is likely to be in what position?

45.When treating a patient in shock, what’s the position that you should put this patient in?

46.In an adult patient, a pulse rate of 100 or higher is called what?

47.Your unconscious patient is lying on the ground, you suspect trauma, and how do you open the airway?

48.What is the lpm allowed for Nasal Cannula?

49.What does “constriction” mean?

50.What is the lpm allowed for a Simple Mask?

51.What is the lpm allowed for Non-Rebreather?

52.What does COPD stand for?

53.What does CHF stand for?

54.Of the following IV solutions, which one are we NOT allowed to monitor?

55.Any time a patient has fallen more than _______ the patient’s height, the fall should be considered severe?

56.What does AVPU stand for?

57.When performing the initial assessment of a responsive adult patient, you should assess the ______ pulse. 

58.If a patient is in shock, you would expect the skin to be what?

59.The purpose of the initial assessment is to identify what?

60.What does “T” stand for in “DCAP-BTLS”?

61.What clue tells you that your patient has a “flail chest” segment?

62.A detailed physical exam is typically performed when?

63.What type of patient most frequently gets a detailed physical exam?

64.What is the “clear” fluid that is typically seen with massive trauma to the head?

65.What medical is most likely prescribed for a patient with chest pain?

66.Your 77-year-old male patient is unresponsive, but breathing.  You should obtain pertinent patient information from whom?
  
67.Ongoing assessments for stable patient should be repeated every ________ minutes.

68.You made an error while writing your patient care report.  How should the error be corrected?

69.Name the medication given for diabetic hypoglycemia. 

70.Name the medication given for Anaphylaxis Reactions. 

71.Name the medication given to treat Hypoxia. 

72.Nitroglycerin is a medication that is given how?

73.In the memory aid “OPQRST” what does the “P” stand for?

74.What is the generic name for the medication in the prescribed inhaler? 

75.Hypoglycemia is a term for diabetic condition means what?

76.A common symptom of poison ingestion is?

77.Finish this sentence: You’re not dead until you are _______. 

78.Rough handling of a hypothermic patient may cause what?

79.The muscular abdominal organ where the fetus develops is called what?

80.The “bag of water” that surrounds the developing fetus is also called the what?

81.The most common abnormal delivery of a baby is what?

82.A steady flow of dark red blood from a wound is bleeding for what?

83.Your best clue to the possibility of internal bleeding is what?

84.The outermost layer of skin is called what?

85.An injury in which flaps of skin and tissues are torn loose or pulled off completely is called what?

86.What does PASG stand for?

87.What does MAST stand for?

88.A burn in which all layers of the skin are damaged is sometimes called what?

89.The major problem cause by electrical shock is often not the burn itself, but what?

90.What is it called when the lung collapses and is filled with air?

91.What is it called when the lung collapses and is filled with blood and air?

92.What’s the term for “touching or feeling”?

93.How many cervical bones are there?

94.How many Lumbar bones are there?

95.How many Thoracic bones are there?

96.The medical term for “tailbone” is what?

97.What is the compression to breath ratio for Adult CPR?

98.What is the compression to breath ratio for Infant CPR?

99.What is the compression to breath ratio for Child CPR?

100.How many compressions are we shooting for in a minute with Adult CPR?

101.How many compressions are we shooting for in a minute with Infant CPR?

102.In infants and children, the primary cause of cardiac arrest is what?

103.Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in infants?

104.You suspect that your pediatric patient has been physically abused.  The first person you should inform of your suspicions should be who?

105.Why do we carry aluminum foil on the ambulance?

106.After each call, prior to putting the ambulance back in service, you should always do what?

107.What does MCI stand for? Plus 1, what does it mean?

108.What is the “Rule of Thumb”?

109.These produce substances that help the body fight infections?

110.A blue or gray color resulting from a lack of oxygen in the body. 

111.A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes. 

112.Give an example of a blunt force trauma.

113.Give an example of a penetrating trauma.

114.What does ALOC abbreviated for?

115.What’s the term for “listening”?

116.What’s the term for “touching or feeling”?

117.A sign is what?

118.What does “dilate” mean?

119.The black center of your eye is called what?

120.A surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a bag in place to collect excretions from the digestive system is called what?

121.The grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together. 

122.Recording the changes in a patient’s condition over time is called what?

123.A device that picks up signals from a lower-power unit, such as a mobile or portable radio and re-transmits them at a higher power is called what?      
124.What does “Contraindications” mean?

125.What are the four R’s?

126.Accumulation of fluid in the lungs is known as what?

127.Accumulation of fluid in the feet or ankles. 

128.What does AMI stand for?   Plus 1, what does it mean?

129.What is apnea?

130.What does CVA stand for?   Plus 1, what does it mean?

131.The alcohol-withdrawal may experience seizures, a.k.a. know as what?

132.The direct transfer of heat from one material to another through direct contact is what?

133.Death of person due to a body position that restricts breathing for a prolonged time. 

134.A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall; a cause of prebirth bleeding. 

135.The Golden Hour refers to what?

136.What is a closed wound?

137.An open chest wound in the air is “sucked” into the chest wound is called what?
ANSWERS & VITALS
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EMS TEST & INFORMATION
This page was last updated: April 15, 2008
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          MAST
MILITARY ANTI-SHOCK TROUSERS

DEVELOPED IN THE 1960'S DURING THE VIETNAM
WAR-THEY ARE USED TO SQUEEZED BLOOD FROM
THE LOWER EXTREMITIES INTO THE THORASIC
CAVITY.  THERE USE ARE
TO TREAT SHOCK &
STABLIZE PELVIS
FRACTURES
EMS HERO'S
NEW NAVIGATION MENU 02-2008
1
What is the main purpose of raising the feet and legs of a casualty who is in shock?

A  to help breathing.
B  to prevent nausea and vomiting.
C  to increase blood supply to vital tissues.
D  to slow down the heart beat.

2
As part of first aid to control severe external bleeding, you should:

A  keep the casualty moving to improve circulation.
B  lower the injured part below the level of the heart.
C  keep changing all blood soaked dressings.
D  apply direct pressure to the bleeding part.

3
To prevent further contamination and infection of a wound, you should cleanse the surrounding skin by:

A  wiping away from the edges of the wound.
B  wiping lightly over the edges of the wound.
C  swabbing in circular motions around the wound.
D  swabbing from one side of the wound to the other.

4
Force on a joint may cause it to "pop out" of its socket. This injury is called a:

A  dislocation.
B  sprain.
C  strain.
D  fracture.

5
Which statement best defines the term "signs" as used to assess a casualty?

A  Indications of illness or injury as seen by the first aider.
B  Sensations felt and described by the casualty.
C  Causes of the accident or illness as established by the first aider.
D  Facts given by the casualty and bystanders.

6
Leaving an unconscious person on his back is dangerous because in this position:

A  the airway may become obstructed.
B  vomiting is more likely to occur.
C  breathing is more difficult.
D  circulation may become impaired.

7
The first aid for a conscious choking child, who cannot cough or speak, is to:

A  finger-sweep the mouth and attempt to ventilate.
B  give back blows followed by chest thrusts until successful or he becomes unconscious.
C  give abdominal thrusts until successful or he becomes unconscious.
D  open the airway and attempt to ventilate

8
If vomiting occurs during artificial respiration, you should:

A  place the casualty into the recovery position, allow vomit to drain and stop AR.
B  finger-sweep the mouth, give abdominal thrusts and continue AR.
C  turn the casualty on the side, clear the mouth and reassess breathing and signs of circulation.
D  roll the casualty face-down and give back blows before resuming AR.

9
When giving mouth-to-mouth artificial respiration to an adult casualty, you should ventilate every:

A  3 seconds.
B  5 seconds.
C  7 seconds.
D  9 seconds.

10
Obtaining a detailed history of a patient and performing a thorough physical exam is known as:

A  initial assessment
B  windshield assessment
C  secondary survey
D  primary assessment

11
Immediately after opening a casualty's airway, you should:

A  give two short ventilations
B  assess for a pulse
C  initiate CPR
D  look, listen and feel for breathing


12
The best way to care for a flail chest is to:

A  leave chest uncovered and transport immediately
B  stabilize the chest with a bulky trauma pad or pillow
C  apply an occlusive dressing
D  tape the front and lateral sides of the chest tightly

13
The actual forces that cause a casualty's injuries is called the:

A  index of suspicion
B  mechanism of injury
C  trauma incident
D  none of the above

14
A common cause of airway obstruction in the casualty with an altered mental status is:

A  Food.
B  The tongue.
C  Dentures.
D  Secretions.

15
According to the age group guidelines used for the techniques in AR, CPR and choking, a casualty is considered a child when he is:

A  over eight years of age.
B  under one year of age.
C  from one to eight years of age.
D  from one to twelve years of age.

16
At which rate should you give chest compressions to a child?

A  About 100 times a minute
B  About 60 times a minute
C  About 80 times a minute
D  About 120 times a minute

17
Which one of the following techniques would prevent the tongue from blocking the airway?

A  Chest compressions.
B  The head-tilt chin-lift manoeuvre.
C  The finger-sweep manoeuvre.
D  Abdominal thrusts.

18
When caring for a casualty, which of the following types of blood would pose a hazard to you?

A  Arterial blood
B  Venous blood
C  Capillary blood
D  All of the above

19
You find a non-breathing casualty who is bleeding around the mouth and you suspect a fractured jaw. You should:

A  gently hold the jaw in place while giving mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.
B  use the mouth-to-nose technique of artificial respiration.
C  turn the casualty into the recovery position before giving mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.
D  Wait until the ambulance arrives with specialized equipment.

20
Deoxygenated blood is returned from the body into which chamber of the heart?

A  Right atrium
B  Left ventricle
C  Left atrium
D  Right ventricle
EKG SKILLS TEST
EMS HERO'S
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AED INFORMATION CLICK GO
       History and Physical Exam
1.Scene safe, PPE, resources needed
2.Introduction / Preliminary data
3.Primary survey (Quick determination of patients level of distress)
4.CC or goal of treatment
5.Hx of present illness, ( OPQRST), Associated symptoms, and pertinent Negatives
6.Past Hx
a.Pts perception of their own health
b.Childhood diseases (MMR, Chicken Pox, etc)
c.Adult Diseases/ Family Hx i.e. Diabetes, HD, HTN, Anemia, etc.
d.Psychiatric Illness
e.Accidents or injuries(serious)
f.Surgical Hx or Hospitalizations
7.Current Health Status
a.Current Medications
b.Allergies
c.Tobacco use
d.Alcohol, Drugs  (CAGE Questions)
e.Diet
f. Lab Tests
g.Immunizations
h.Sleep Patterns
i. Home situation
j. Daily Life
k.Important Expieriances
l. Patients outlook
8.Review of systems
a.General ( Weight, Weakness, Fatigue, or fever)
b.Skin:  Any rash’s lumps or sores
c.HEENT:  Any Head Ache’s, Eye sight problems, Hearing problems including tinitus, Any               problems with nose, especially Hx of epistaxis, Does patient have frequent sore throats,              disphagia?
d.Neck: Any Lumps or pain
e.Resp; Difficulty breathing or hemoptesis
f. Cardiac: Chest Pain, Orthopnea, Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
g.GI:  Abdominal Pain, Black Tarry stools, Constapation, Diahrrhea, Hematemesis
h.Urinary:  Painful Urination, Urethral/ Kidney Pain, Polyuria, Disuria
i. Male Genitalia: Hernia/ Discharge/ STD
j. Female Genitalia/ LMP, Age of menarche or age of menapause, GPAL,                                                 Complications of Prgnancy, Birth Control, STDS
k.       Peripheral Vascular: Intermittent Claudication,  Leg Cramps, Varicose Veins, or Blood                  clots
l. Musculoskeletal: Muscle or joint pain stiffness, arthritis, gout, or backache
m.     Nuero:  Hx of seizures, blackouts, fainting, numbness, tingling, parasthesia, tremors
n.Hematologic:  Hx of anemia
o.Endocrine:  Any hx of metabolic disfunction
p.Psychiatric: Depression, anxiety, other mental illnesses
                                                           Physical Examination
1.Vital signs and pertinent laboratory and diagnostic or monitoring tests
2.General Statement
3.HEENT: Inspects head, Eyes:  EOMI, Visual Fields, PERRLA and consentual light  reflex,              Optalmoscopic (optic Disks),  Ears (Post auricular skin, Otoscopic),  Nose, Throat
4.Neck,( No JVD, NO lymphadenopathy, Trachea Midline,  Auscult for Bruits,                                         Palpates for step-off’s, No Thyromegally
5.Chest :   TREES, Palpate for symmetry and expansion and fremitus,  Auscultate,                             Percuss ,  Assess both anterior and posterior
6.Heart:  Evaluates Rate and rhythm, Evaluates pulses( symmetry and character),                              Auscultates all Fields.
7.Abdomen :  Inspect, Auscultate (No Tinkles or rushes, No Bruits), Palpate ( No                                 tenderness), Deep Palpation (No Hepatospleenomegally,  no masses)
Atrial Junction
Asystole  (flatline)
Junctional
NSR Normal Sinus Rhythm
Bundle Branch
Multi Focal P.V.C.'S
Premature Atrial
Premature Atrial
Sinus BradyCardia
Sinus Tach-a-Cardia
Super Ventricular Tach-a-Cardia
Ventricular Fibrillation  (Cardiac Arrest)
Ventricular Tachacardia
Paced Rhythm
Atrial Juction Rhythm
Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial Flutter
Super Ventricular Tachacardia
The best possible score for a Glascow coma scale is: